Updated NCLEX-RN Dumps Questions Are Available [2022] For Passing NCLEX Exam
Free UPDATED NCLEX NCLEX-RN Certification Exam Dumps is Online
Get to know about the target audience of the NCLEX-RN Exam
The target audience of the NCLEX-RN exam is those nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. The nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam need to be aware of the exam syllabus and the important points in it. This is the first step in your preparation for NCLEX-RN exam. Cram the study guide with the relevant content and study it thoroughly. Puncture and laceration is another important area of knowledge that you need to know well. Practice the NCLEX-RN sample questions and answers as many times as possible. The study guide provides you with all the information you need to pass your NCLEX-RN exam. You will need to focus more on the study guide. Weight gain is a very common problem among the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. Policy and procedure is another important point that needs to be known well before you start the preparation. Textbooks and notes are the two most important sources of information for you in the NCLEX-RN exam. Exam sources such as flashcards, practice exams and question papers will help you prepare for the NCLEX-RN Dumps. Question bank is another important source of information for the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. You can use it as an effective resource of information to pass your NCLEX-RN exam.
NEW QUESTION 216
A 40-year-old client has lived for 8 years with an abusive spouse. She married her husband in her senior year of high school after becoming pregnant. Shortly after the baby was born, he began to physically abuse her. She has attempted to leave him several times, but she has always returned. She is unable to support herself financially, and her husband threatens to kill her if she leaves him. This time, her husband has beaten her so badly she cannot stop the bleeding from the gash above her eye. She admits her husband caused her injury. In assessing a person after experiencing spousal abuse, which need has the highest priority?
- A. Assess the level of anxiety, coping responses, and support systems.
- B. Assess suicide potential.
- C. Assess drug and alcohol use.
- D. Assess the history of physical abuse.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Assessing the level of anxiety, coping responses, and support systems is very important, but not of highest priority at this time. (B) A history of physical abuse is an important part of assessment. The nurses must also always ask if there is abuse of the children. (C) Although all of these answers are very important in assessment, the highest priority is assessment of suicide potential, because this could cause the greatest harm to the client. Feeling there is no other way out, abused spouses may consider suicide. (D) The spouse may be self-medicating herself with alcohol or drugs to escape an awful situation. The abuser may also be abusing drugs or alcohol. If this is so, the nurse should encourage the spouse to seek counseling and not to return to the home.
NEW QUESTION 217
A client suspected of having anorexia nervosa is placed on bed rest with an IV infusion and a high-carbohydrate liquid diet. Within 72 hours, the results of her lab work show a return to normal limits. She is transferred to the psychiatric service for further treatment. A behavior modification plan is initiated. Three days after her transfer, the client tells the nurse, "I haven't exercised in 6 days. I won't be eating lunch today." This statement by her most likely reflects:
- A. A true desire to stay fit while in the hospital
- B. Increased knowledge about personal exercise plans
- C. Her lack of internal awareness about the outcome of the behavior
- D. A manipulative technique to trick the nurse into allowing her to miss a meal
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Indirect self-destructive behavior such as that seen in anorexia nervosa is characterized by the client's lack of insight and the awareness that the outcome of the dieting, exercising, and weight loss will ultimately result in death if uninterrupted. (B) Although the client is knowledgeable about exercise, knowledge about the balance between nutrition, exercise, and rest is absent. (C) The client's level of denial and lack of awareness disallow this behavior as a manipulative trick. (D) The client's illness-maintaining behaviors are inconsistent with fitness.
NEW QUESTION 218
A client was prescribed a major tranquilizer 2 months ago. One month ago she was placed on benztropine (Cogentin). What would indicate that benztropine therapy is effective?
- A. Rigidity
- B. Smooth, coordinated voluntary movement
- C. Tremors
- D. Muscle weakness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Benztropine is prescribed to decrease or alleviate extrapyramidal side effects of major tranquilizers.
Smooth, coordinated voluntary movement indicates minimal extrapyramidal side effects. (B) Tremors are an extrapyramidal side effect. (C) Rigidity is an extrapyramidal side effect. (D) Muscle weakness is an extrapyramidal side effect.
NEW QUESTION 219
A mother frantically calls the emergency room (ER) asking what to do about her 3-year-old girl who was found eating pills out of a bottle in the medicine cabinet. The ER nurse tells the mother to:
- A. Bring the child to the ER immediately.
- B. Give the child 15 mL of syrup of ipecac.
- C. Give the child 1 cup of water to induce vomiting.
- D. Give the child 10 mL of syrup of ipecac with a sip of water.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Before giving any emetic, the substance ingested must be known. (B) At least 8 oz of water should be administered along with ipecac syrup to increase volume in the stomach and facilitate vomiting. (C) Water alone will not induce vomiting. An emetic is necessary to facilitate vomiting. (D) Vomiting should never be induced in an unconscious client because of the risk of aspiration.
NEW QUESTION 220
The nurse would assess the client's correct understanding of the fertility awareness methods that enhance conception, if the client stated that:
- A. "My sexual partner and I should have intercourse when my cervical mucosa is thick and cloudy."
- B. "My sexual partner and I should have sexual intercourse on day 14 of my cycle regardless of the length of the cycle."
- C. "I should douche immediately after intercourse."
- D. "At ovulation, my basal body temperature should rise about 0.5F."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) At ovulation, the cervical mucus is increased, stretchable, and watery clear. (B) Under the influence of progesterone, the basal body temperature increases slightly after ovulation. (C) To enhance fertility, measures should be taken that promote retention of sperm rather than removal. (D) Ovulation, the optimal time for conception, occurs 14+2 days before the next menses; therefore, the date of ovulation is directly related to the length of the menstrual cycle.
NEW QUESTION 221
The nurse is caring for a 3-month-old girl with meningitis. She has a positive Kernig's sign. The nurse expects her to react to discomfort if she:
- A. Turns her head to the side
- B. Flexes her spine
- C. Dorsiflexes her ankle
- D. Plantiflexes her wrist
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Discomfort with ankle dorsiflexion is not expected with meningitis. (B) Spinal flexion, flexing the neck or the hips with legs extended, causes discomfort if the meninges are irritated. (C) Discomfort with wrist flexion is not expected with meningitis. (D) Rotating the cervical spine may cause discomfort with meningitis, but pain with flexion is more indicative of meningeal irritation.
NEW QUESTION 222
A client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa reluctantly agrees to eat all prescribed meals. The most important intervention in monitoring her dietary compliance would be to:
- A. Praise her for eating everything
- B. Encourage her to eat in moderation, choose foods that she likes, and avoid foods that she dislikes
- C. Observe behavior for 1-2 hours after meals to prevent vomiting
- D. Allow her privacy at mealtimes
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Eating alone is not recommended for anorexic clients because they tend to hoard food instead of eating it.
(B) The client should be praised for whatever she eats, which is usually a small portion or percentage of what is served. Praise should not be withheld until she eats everything. (C) The client should be observed eyeto- eye for at least 1 hour following meals to prevent discarding food stashed in her clothing at mealtime or engaging in selfinduced vomiting. (D) If offered these choices, the client would choose low-caloric foods, not a nutritious diet.
NEW QUESTION 223
A client has been diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. She asks, "What is the most likely cause of thrombophlebitis during my pregnancy?" The nurse explains:
- A. An increase in fibrinolysis and a decrease in coagulation factors
- B. Increased levels of the coagulation factors and a decrease in fibrinolysis
- C. An inadequate intake of folic acid during pregnancy
- D. An inadequate production of platelets
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) During pregnancy, the potential for thromboses increases owing to the increased levels of coagulation factors and a decrease in the breakdown of fibrin. (B) An inadequate production of platelets would result in thrombocytopenia with resulting signs and symptoms of bleeding such as petechiae, hematuria, or hematemesis. (C) A deficiency of folic acid during pregnancy produces a megaloblastic anemia. It is usually found in combination with iron deficiency. (D) This combination would result in bleeding disorders because more fibrin would be broken down and fewer clotting factors would be available.
NEW QUESTION 224
A client is started on prednisone 2.5 mg po bid. Which of the following instructions should be included in her discharge teaching specific to this medication?
- A. Increase your oral intake of fluids to at least 4000 mL every day.
- B. Immediately stop taking the prednisone if you feel depressed.
- C. Brush your teeth at least 4 times a day with a firm toothbrush.
- D. Avoid contact with people who have contagious illnesses.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Fluid retention is a side effect of prednisone. The nurse should teach clients to weigh themselves daily and to observe for signs of edema. If these signs of fluid retention occur, they should notify the physician. (B) Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, suppresses the normal immune response making the client more susceptible to infections. (C) An increase in bleeding tendencies is a side effect of prednisone therapy. The nurse should teach clients to use preventive measures (i.e., electric razors and soft toothbrushes). (D) Depression and personality changes are side effects of prednisone therapy. Prednisone should never be discontinued abruptly.
NEW QUESTION 225
A client is in active labor and has been admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The RN has just done a sterile vaginal exam and determines that the client is dilated 5 cm, effaced 85%, and the fetus's head is at
0 station. She asks if she could have a lumbar epidural now. The epidural is started, and the anesthetic agent used is bupivacaine (Marcaine). After the client has received her lumbar epidural, it is important for the RN to monitor her for which of the following side effects:
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypotension
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The medication bupivacaine will cause vasodilation in the vascular system, and this does not result in elevation of the ma-ternal blood pressure. (B) The medication bupivacaine will cause vasodilation in the vascular system, and this will result in lowering the maternal blood pressure. (C) Bupivacaine does not interfere with the functioning of the endocrine system. (D) Bupivacaine does not interfere with the functioning of the endocrine system.
NEW QUESTION 226
A depressed client is seen at the mental health center for follow-up after an attempted suicide 1 week ago. She has taken phenelzine sulfate (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase
(MAO) inhibitor, for 7 straight days. She states that she is not feeling any better. The nurse explains that the drug must accumulate to an effective level before symptoms are totally relieved. Symptom relief is expected to occur within:
- A. 2 months
- B. 10 days
- C. 3 months
- D. 2-4 weeks
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication.
(B) This answer is correct. Because MAO inhibitors are slow to act, it takes 2-4 weeks before improvement of symptoms is noted.
(C) This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication.
(D) This answer is incorrect. Therapeutic effects of the medication are noted within 1 month of drug therapy.
NEW QUESTION 227
A client is pregnant with her second child. Her last menstrual period began on January 15. Her expected date of delivery would be:
- A. October 8
- B. October 22
- C. October 29
- D. October 15
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Incorrect application of Nägele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but subtracted 7 days rather than added. (B) Incorrect application of Nägele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but did not add 7 days. (C) Correct application of Nägele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months and added 7 days. (D) Incorrect application of Nägele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but added 14 days instead of 7 days.
NEW QUESTION 228
A 70-year-old homeless woman is admitted with pneumonia. She is weak, emaciated, and febrile. The physician orders enteral feedings intermittently by nasogastric tube. When inserting the nasogastric tube, once the tube passes through the oropharynx, the nurse will instruct the client to:
- A. Swallow as tube passes
- B. Cough as tube passes
- C. Hold breath as tube passes
- D. Tilt her head backwards
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Head should be tilted slightly forward to facilitate insertion. (B) Swallowing assists with insertion of tube and closes off airway. (C) Client should be swallowing as tube passes; holding the breath facilitates nothing.
(D) Coughing may expel tube.
NEW QUESTION 229
A client is hyperactive and not sleeping. She will not remain at the table during mealtime. She is getting very limited calories and is using a lot of energy in her hyperactive state. The most therapeutic nursing action is to:
- A. Insist that she remain at the table and eat a balanced diet.
- B. Order a high-calorie diet with supplements.
- C. Provide nutritious finger foods several times a day.
- D. Offer to go to the dining room with her and allow her to open the food and inspect what she eats.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A)
The client is not able to sit for long periods. Forcing her to remain at the table will increase her anxiety and cause her to become hostile. (B) This action will not ensure that the client eats what is ordered. Dietary orders are not within the nurse's scope of practice.
(C)
Providing finger foods increases the likelihood of eating for hyperactive persons. They may be eating "on the run." (D) These clients are not suspicious of the food or insecure in moving about the unit alone.
NEW QUESTION 230
A 5-year-old child has suffered second-degree thermal burns over 30% of her body. Forty-eight hours after the burn injury, the nurse must begin to monitor the child for which one of the following complications?
- A. Decreased cardiac output
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Severe hypotension
- D. Fluid volume excess
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Fluid volume deficit resulting from fluid shifts to the interstitial spaces occurs in the first 48 hours. (B) Forty- eight hours to 72 hours after the burn injury and fluid resuscitation, capillary permeability is restored and fluid requirements decrease. Interstitial fluid returns rapidly to the vascular compartment, and the nurse must monitor the child for signs and symptoms of hypervolemia. (C) Increased cardiac output results as fluids shift back to the vascular compartment. (D) Hypertension is the result of hypervolemia.
NEW QUESTION 231
A 37-year-old client has been taking antipsychotic medication for the past 10 days. The nurse observes her walking with a shuffling gait and postural rigidity and notes a masklike expression on her face. Which side effect is this client exhibiting?
- A. Dystonia
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Akathesia
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Dystonia refers to severe, painful muscle contractions. (B) This answer is correct. Parkinsonism commonly occurs approximately 1-2 weeks after initiation of antipsychotic drug therapy. Traditional signs are masklike facies, postural rigidity, shuffling gait, and resting tremor. (C) This answer is incorrect. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary muscle movements of the face, jaw, and tongue. (D) This answer is incorrect. Akathesia is motor restlessness.
NEW QUESTION 232
Proper positioning for the child who is in Bryant's traction is:
- A. Both hips flexed at a 90-degree angle with the knees extended and the buttocks elevated off the bed
- B. Both hips and knees maintained at a 90-degree flexion angle, and the back flat on the bed
- C. Both legs extended, and the hips are not flexed
- D. The affected leg extended with slight hip flexion
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The child's weight supplies the countertraction for Bryant's traction; the buttocks are slightly elevated off the bed, and the hips are flexed at a 90-degree angle. Both legs are suspended by skin traction. (B) The child in Buck's extension traction maintains the legs extended and parallel to the bed. (C) The child in Russell traction maintains hip flexion of the affected leg at the prescribed angle with the leg extended. (D) The child in "90-90" traction maintains both hips and knees at a 90-degree flexion angle and the back is flat on the bed.
NEW QUESTION 233
The parents of a 2-year-old child are ready to begin toilet training activities with him. His parents feel he is ready to train because he is now 2 years old. What would the nurse identify as readiness in this child?
- A. The age at which the child's siblings were trained
- B. The child awakening wet from his naps
- C. Communicating the urge to defecate or urinate
- D. Patience by the child when wearing soiled diapers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Children experience impatience with soiled diapers when readiness for training is apparent. They often desire to be changed immediately. (B) A child must be able to use verbal or nonverbal skills to communicate needs. (C) A readiness indicator would be awaking dry from naps. (D) The age at which a sibling was toilet trained has no implications for training this child.
NEW QUESTION 234
......
NCLEX Exam 2022 NCLEX-RN Dumps Updated Questions: https://www.dumpstests.com/NCLEX-RN-latest-test-dumps.html
Get The Most Updated NCLEX-RN Dumps To NCLEX Certification Certification: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1CCs6ePv77fT3SZMHzM9oNgbIeyOQIWrK