Real ISACA CCAK Exam Dumps with Correct 207 Questions and Answers
Valid CCAK Test Answers & ISACA CCAK Exam PDF
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following should be an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider?
- A. Access controls
- B. Location of data
- C. Amount of server storage
- D. Type of network technology
Answer: A
Explanation:
Access controls are an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a SaaS provider because they ensure that only authorized users can access the cloud services and data. Access controls also help to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the cloud resources. Access controls are part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain IAM-01: Identity and Access Management Policy and Procedures, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to manage user identities and access to cloud services and data."1 References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 751
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following activities are part of the implementation phase of a cloud assurance program during a cloud migration?
- A. Identification of processes, functions, and systems
- B. Identification of the relevant laws, regulations, and standards
- C. Identification of roles and responsibilities
- D. Development of the monitoring goals and requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
During the implementation phase of a cloud assurance program, the focus is on establishing the operational aspects that will ensure the ongoing security and compliance of the cloud environment. This includes developing the monitoring goals and requirements which are essential for setting up the assurance framework. It involves determining what needs to be monitored, how it should be monitored, and the metrics that will be used to measure compliance and performance.
Reference = The information aligns with best practices for cloud migration and assurance programs as outlined in various resources, including the Cloud Assurance Program Guide by Microsoft Cybersecurity1, which discusses the importance of developing and implementing policies for cloud data and system migration, and the Enterprise Guide to Successful Cloud Adoption by New Relic2, which emphasizes the role of observability in cloud migration, including the establishment of monitoring goals.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is an example of financial business impact?
- A. While the breach was reported in a timely manner to the CEO, the CFO and CISO blamed each other in public, resulting in a loss of public confidence that led the board to replace all three.
- B. A DDoS attack renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours resulting in millions in lost sales.
- C. A hacker using a stolen administrator identity brings down the SaaS sales and marketing systems, resulting in the inability to process customer orders or manage customer relationships.
- D. The cloud provider fails to report a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server, resulting in GDPR fines of 10 million euro.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
An audit has identified that business units have purchased cloud-based applications without ITs support. What is the GREATEST risk associated with this situation?
- A. The applications are not included in business continuity plans (BCPs).
- B. The application purchases did not follow procurement policy.
- C. The applications could be modified without advanced notice.
- D. The applications may not reasonably protect data.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 48
An auditor is auditing the services provided by a cloud service provider. When evaluating the security of the cloud customer's data in the cloud, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
- A. According to the cloud customer's data handling policy, all confidential data should be encrypted, but the confidential data stored in the cloud is well segmented but not encrypted.
- B. Personally identifiable information (Pll) is pseudonymized but not fully encrypted.
- C. The cloud customer has encrypted the confidential data in the cloud using its own encryption keys.
- D. The confidential data stored in the cloud is encrypted using encryption keys that are managed by the provider.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 49
In a situation where duties related to cloud risk management and control are split between an organization and its cloud service providers, which of the following would BEST help to ensure a coordinated approach to risk and control processes?
- A. Automating reporting of risk and control compliance
- B. Establishing a joint security operations center
- C. Maintaining a centralized risk and controls dashboard
- D. Co-locating compliance management specialists
Answer: C
Explanation:
A centralized risk and controls dashboard is the best option for ensuring a coordinated approach to risk and control processes when duties are split between an organization and its cloud service providers. This dashboard provides a unified view of risk and control status across the organization and the cloud services it utilizes. It enables both parties to monitor and manage risks effectively and ensures that control activities are aligned and consistent. This approach supports proactive risk management and facilitates communication and collaboration between the organization and the cloud service provider.
References = The concept of a centralized risk and controls dashboard is supported by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) and ISACA, which emphasize the importance of visibility and coordination in cloud risk management. The CCAK materials and the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) provide guidance on establishing such dashboards as a means to manage and mitigate risks in a cloud environment12.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?
- A. Updated audit work program
- B. Testing procedure to be performed
- C. Processes and systems to be audited
- D. Documentation criteria for the audit evidence
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider is the document that defines the processes and systems to be audited. This document should clearly identify the objectives, criteria, and boundaries of the audit, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the audit team and the cloud service provider. The document should also specify the scope of the cloud service provider's services, such as the service model, deployment model, geographic location, data classification, and compliance requirements. The document should also describe the scope of the audit evidence, such as the types, sources, methods, and sampling techniques of data collection and analysis. The document should also state the expected deliverables, timelines, and reporting formats of the audit. The document should be agreed upon by both parties before the audit commences.
The document that defines the processes and systems to be audited is essential for ensuring that the audit is relevant, reliable, consistent, and complete. It helps to establish a common understanding and expectation between the auditor and the auditee, as well as to avoid any misunderstandings or conflicts during or after the audit. It also helps to focus the audit on the key risks and controls related to the cloud service provider's operations and performance. It also helps to ensure that the audit complies with the applicable standards, frameworks, and regulations.
References:
* Cloud Audits and Compliance: What You Need To Know - Linford & Company LLP
* How to audit the cloud | ICAEW
* Auditing Cloud Computing: A Security and Privacy Guide
NEW QUESTION # 51
After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data. In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?
- A. As a control breach
- B. As a confidentiality breach
- C. As an availability breach
- D. As an integrity breach
Answer: D
Explanation:
As an integrity breach. The technical impact of this incident can be categorized as an integrity breach, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Integrity is one of the three security properties of an information system, along with confidentiality and availability.
The incident described in the question involves a cybersecurity criminal finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, accessing an encrypted file system, and overwriting parts of some files with random data. This is a type of data tampering or corruption attack that affects the accuracy and reliability of the data. The fact that the file system was encrypted does not prevent the integrity breach, as the attacker did not need to decrypt or read the data, but only to overwrite it. The integrity breach can have serious consequences for the organization, such as data loss, data inconsistency, data recovery costs, and loss of trust.
The other options are not correct categories for the technical impact of this incident. Option B, as an availability breach, is incorrect because availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial, which is not the case in this incident. Option C, as a confidentiality breach, is incorrect because confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure, which is not the case in this incident. Option D, as a control breach, is incorrect because control refers to the ability to manage or influence the behavior or outcome of a system or process, which is not a security property of an information system. References: =
* Top Threats Analysis Methodology - CSA1
* Top Threats Analysis Methodology - Cloud Security Alliance2
* OWASP Risk Rating Methodology | OWASP Foundation3
* OEE Factors: Availability, Performance, and Quality | OEE4
* The Effects of Technological Developments on Work and Their
NEW QUESTION # 52
The MOST important goal of regression testing is to ensure:
- A. the system can be restored after a technical issue.
- B. new releases do not impact previous stable features.
- C. the expected outputs are provided by the new features.
- D. the system can handle a high number of users.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the definition of regression testing, it is a type of software testing that confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features1 It involves re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change2 If the software does not perform as expected, it is called a regression. Therefore, the most important goal of regression testing is to ensure new releases do not impact previous stable features.
The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because the expected outputs are provided by the new features is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of functional testing or acceptance testing. These types of testing aim to verify that the software meets the specified requirements and satisfies the user needs. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the existing features are not broken by the new features3 Option B is not correct because the system can handle a high number of users is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of performance testing or load testing. These types of testing aim to evaluate the behavior and responsiveness of the software under various workloads and conditions. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the software functionality and quality are not degraded by code changes4 Option C is not correct because the system can be restored after a technical issue is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of recovery testing or disaster recovery testing. These types of testing aim to assess the ability of the software to recover from failures or disasters and resume normal operations. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the software does not introduce new failures or defects due to code changes5
NEW QUESTION # 53
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?
- A. Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the
- B. Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.
- C. Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.
- D. Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, the scope of the technical impact identification step is to determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a process developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the top threats to cloud computing, as defined in the CSA Top Threats reports. The methodology consists of six steps1:
* Scope definition: Define the scope of the analysis, such as the cloud service model, deployment model, and business context.
* Threat identification: Identify the relevant threats from the CSA Top Threats reports that may affect the
* scope of the analysis.
* Technical impact identification: Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system caused by each threat. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial.
* Business impact identification: Determine the impact on the business objectives and operations caused by each threat, such as financial loss, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory compliance.
* Risk assessment: Assess the likelihood and severity of each threat based on the technical and business impacts, and prioritize the threats according to their risk level.
* Risk treatment: Select and implement appropriate risk treatment options for each threat, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance.
The technical impact identification step is important because it helps to measure the extent of damage or harm that each threat can cause to the information system and its components. This step also helps to align the technical impacts with the business impacts and to support the risk assessment and treatment steps.
References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page
81
NEW QUESTION # 54
To ensure integration of security testing is implemented on large code sets in environments where time to completion is critical, what form of validation should an auditor expect?
- A. Regression testing
- B. Parallel testing
- C. Functional verification
- D. Full application stack unit testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Regression testing is a type of software testing that confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features1 It involves re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change2 Regression testing is suitable for large code sets in environments where time to completion is critical, as it can help detect and prevent defects, improve quality, and enable faster delivery of secure software. Regression testing can be automated to reduce manual errors, speed up feedback loops, and increase efficiency and reliability3 The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because parallel testing is a type of software testing that involves testing multiple applications or subsystems concurrently to reduce the test time4 Parallel testing does not necessarily ensure the integration of security testing, as it depends on the quality and coverage of the test cases and scenarios used for each application or subsystem. Parallel testing may also introduce challenges such as synchronization, coordination, and communication among the testers and developers5 Option B is not correct because full application stack unit testing is a type of software testing that involves testing individual units or components of an application in isolation to verify their functionality, logic, interfaces, and performance6 Full application stack unit testing does not ensure the integration of security testing, as it does not consider the interactions and dependencies among the units or components, or the behavior of the application as a whole. Unit testing is typically performed by developers at an early stage of the software development life cycle, and may not cover all the security aspects or requirements of the application7 Option C is not correct because functional verification is a type of software testing that involves verifying that the software meets the specified requirements and satisfies the user needs. Functional verification does not ensure the integration of security testing, as it does not focus on how the software is designed or configured, or how it handles malicious or unexpected inputs. Functional verification is typically performed by quality assurance teams at a later stage of the software development life cycle, and may not detect all the security vulnerabilities or risks of the software.
References: 1: Wikipedia. Regression testing - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2:
Katalon. What is Regression Testing? Definition, Tools, Examples - Katalon.
[Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: BMC Software. Shift Left Testing: What, Why & How To Shift Left - BMC Software | Blogs. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: Guru99. What is Parallel Testing? with Example - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: LambdaTest.
Parallel Testing In Selenium WebDriver | LambdaTest Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed:
14-Apr-2023]. 6: Guru99. What is Unit Testing? Types & Examples - Guru99. [Online]. Available:
. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 7: Software Testing Help. Unit Testing Vs Integration Testing: Difference Between These Two - SoftwareTestingHelp.com Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. :
Guru99. What is Functional Testing? Types & Examples - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed:
14-Apr-2023]. : Software Testing Help. Functional Testing Vs Non-Functional Testing - SoftwareTestingHelp.com Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following would be the GREATEST governance challenge to an organization where production is hosted in a public cloud and backups are held on the premises?
- A. Aligning the organization's activity with the cloud provider's policy
- B. Aligning shared responsibilities between provider and customer
- C. Aligning the cloud service delivery with the organization's objectives
- D. Aligning the cloud provider's service level agreement (SLA) with the organization's policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
The greatest governance challenge in the scenario where production is hosted in a public cloud and backups are held on-premises is aligning the shared responsibilities between the provider and the customer. This is because the division of security and compliance duties must be clearly understood and managed to ensure that all aspects of the cloud services are adequately protected and meet regulatory requirements. The customer is responsible for the security 'in' the cloud (i.e., the data and applications), while the provider is responsible for the security 'of' the cloud (i.e., the infrastructure). Misalignment in this shared responsibility model can lead to gaps in security and compliance, making it a significant governance challenge.
Reference = This answer is verified by the information available in the Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) documents and related resources provided by ISACA and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), which discuss the shared responsibility model and its implications for governance in cloud environments12.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing actions taken during a forensic investigation?
- A. An image copy of the attacked system was not taken.
- B. The handling procedures of the attacked system are not documented.
- C. The proper authorities were not notified.
- D. The investigation report does not indicate a conclusion.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 57
When reviewing a third-party agreement with a cloud service provider, which of the following should be the GREATEST concern regarding customer data privacy?
- A. Network intrusion detection
- B. Data retention, backup, and recovery
- C. Patch management process
- D. Return or destruction of information
Answer: D
Explanation:
When reviewing a third-party agreement with a cloud service provider, the greatest concern regarding customer data privacy is the return or destruction of information. This is because customer data may contain sensitive or personal information that needs to be protected from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. The cloud service provider should have clear and transparent policies and procedures for returning or destroying customer data upon termination of the agreement or upon customer request. The cloud service provider should also provide evidence of the return or destruction of customer data, such as certificates of destruction, audit logs, or reports. The return or destruction of information should comply with applicable laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The cloud service provider should also ensure that any subcontractors or affiliates that have access to customer data follow the same policies and procedures12.
References:
* Cloud Services Agreements - Protecting Your Hosted Environment
* CSP agreements, price lists, and offers - Partner Center
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?
- A. Testing procedure to be performed
- B. Updated audit/work program
- C. Documentation criteria for the audit evidence
- D. Processes and systems to be audited
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 59
Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:
- A. suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing.
- B. client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the provider's responsibility.
- C. client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers.
- D. client organization has a clear understanding of the provider's suppliers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is most important for the auditor to be aware that the client organization has a clear understanding of the provider's suppliers. The provider's suppliers are the third-party entities that provide services or products to the provider, such as infrastructure, software, hardware, or support. The provider's suppliers may have a significant impact on the quality, security, reliability, and performance of the cloud services that the provider delivers to the client organization. Therefore, the auditor should ensure that the client organization knows who the provider's suppliers are, what services or products they provide, what risks they pose, and what contractual or regulatory obligations they have123.
The other options are not correct. Option A, the client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the provider's responsibility, is incorrect because the client organization cannot rely solely on the provider to manage its suppliers. The client organization has to perform due diligence and oversight on the provider's suppliers, as they may affect the client organization's own security, compliance, and business objectives12. Option B, the suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing, is incorrect because the suppliers are not directly accountable to the client organization, but to the provider. The provider is ultimately accountable to the client organization for its service delivery and performance12. Option C, the client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers, is incorrect because the responsibility for the provider's suppliers depends on the shared responsibility model, which defines how the security and compliance tasks and obligations are divided between the provider and the client organization. The shared responsibility model may vary depending on the type and level of cloud service that the provider offers12. Reference := Cloud Computing: Auditing Challenges - ISACA1 Cloud Computing: Audit Considerations - ISACA2 Top 16 Cloud Computing Companies & Service Providers 2023 - Datamation
NEW QUESTION # 60
What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?
- A. Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems
- B. Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early
- C. Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits
- D. A waterfall model remove resources through the development to release phases
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The shift-left concept of code release cycles is a practice that aims to integrate testing, quality, and performance evaluation early in the software development life cycle, often before any code is written. This helps to find and prevent defects, improve quality, and enable faster delivery of secure software. One of the key aspects of the shift-left concept is the incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early, such as using continuous integration, continuous delivery, and continuous testing tools. Automation can help reduce manual errors, speed up feedback loops, and increase efficiency and reliability123 The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems are more likely to face challenges in adopting the shift-left concept, as they may have more complex and legacy systems, dependencies, and processes that hinder agility and collaboration. The shift-left concept requires a culture of continuous improvement, experimentation, and learning that may not be compatible with traditional or siloed organizations4 Option C is not correct because a waterfall model is the opposite of the shift-left concept, as it involves sequential phases of development, testing, and deployment that are performed late in the software development life cycle. A waterfall model does not allow for early detection and correction of defects, feedback, or changes, and can result in higher costs, delays, and risks5 Option D is not correct because maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits is not a sign of the shift-left concept, but rather a sign of the agile or lean software development methodologies. These methodologies focus on delivering value to customers by delivering working software in short iterations or sprints, with frequent feedback and adaptation. While these methodologies can support the shift-left concept by enabling faster testing and delivery cycles, they are not equivalent or synonymous with it6 References: 1: AWS. What is DevSecOps? - Developer Security Operations Explained - AWS.
[Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2: Dynatrace. Shift left vs shift right: A DevOps mystery solved - Dynatrace news. [Online]. Available: 2. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: BMC Software. Shift Left Testing: What, Why & How To Shift Left - BMC Software | Blogs. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed:
14-Apr-2023]. 4: GitLab. How to shift left with continuous integration | GitLab.
[Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: DZone. DevOps and The Shift-Left Principle - DZone.
[Online]. Available: 5. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 6: Devopedia. Shift Left - Devopedia. [Online]. Available: 6.
[Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
NEW QUESTION # 61
"Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, for maintenance of several items ensuring continuity and availability of operations and support personnel." Which of the following types of controls BEST matches this control description?
- A. Equipment maintenance
- B. System development maintenance
- C. Operations maintenance
- D. System maintenance
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 62
When performing audits in relation to the organizational strategy and governance, what should be requested from the cloud service provider?
- A. Policies and procedures
- B. Enterprise cloud security strategy
- C. Attestation reports
- D. Enterprise cloud strategy and policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to offer an organization's HR department planning to adopt a new public SaaS application to ease the recruiting process?
- A. Do not allow data to be in cleratext
- B. Consult the legal department
- C. Ensure HIPAA compliance
- D. Implement a cloud access security broker
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 64
To qualify for CSA STAR attestation for a particular cloud system, the SOC 2 report must cover:
- A. all Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) controls and TSPC security principles.
- B. maturity model criteria.
- C. ISO/IEC 27001:2013 controls.
- D. Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) and ISO/IEC 27001:2013 controls.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To qualify for CSA STAR attestation, the SOC 2 report must cover both the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) and ISO/IEC 27001:2013 controls. The CSA STAR Attestation integrates SOC 2 reporting with additional cloud security criteria from the CSA CCM. This combination provides a comprehensive framework for assessing the security and privacy controls of cloud services, ensuring that they meet the rigorous standards required for STAR attestation. Reference = The information is supported by the Cloud Security Alliance's resources, which outline the STAR program's emphasis on transparency, rigorous auditing, and harmonization of standards as per the CCM. Additionally, the CSA STAR Certification process leverages the requirements of the ISO/IEC 27001:2013 management system standard together with the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix
NEW QUESTION # 65
The BEST method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider's services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through:
- A. Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis.
- B. a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs).
- C. tools selected by the third-party auditor.
- D. SOC 2 Type 2 attestation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best method to report continuous assessment of a cloud provider's services to the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) is through a set of dedicated application programming interfaces (APIs). According to the CSA website1, the STAR Continuous program is a component of the STAR certification that allows cloud service providers to validate their security posture on an ongoing basis. The STAR Continuous program leverages a set of APIs that can integrate with the cloud provider's existing tools and processes, such as security information and event management (SIEM), governance, risk management, and compliance (GRC), or continuous monitoring systems. The APIs enable the cloud provider to collect, analyze, and report security-related data to the CSA STAR registry in near real-time. The APIs also allow the CSA to verify the data and provide feedback to the cloud provider and the customers. The STAR Continuous program aims to provide more transparency, assurance, and trust in the cloud ecosystem by enabling continuous visibility into the security performance of cloud services.
The other methods listed are not suitable for reporting continuous assessment of a cloud provider's services to the CSA. The Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) assessment by a third-party auditor on a periodic basis is part of the STAR Certification Level 2 program, which provides a point-in-time validation of the cloud provider's security controls. However, this method does not provide continuous assessment or reporting, as it only occurs once every 12 or 24 months2. The tools selected by the third-party auditor may vary depending on the scope, criteria, and methodology of the audit, and they may not be compatible or consistent with the CSA's standards and frameworks. Moreover, the tools may not be able to report the audit results to the CSA STAR registry automatically or frequently. The SOC 2 Type 2 attestation is an independent audit report that evaluates the cloud provider's security controls based on the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) Trust Services Criteria. However, this report is not specific to cloud computing and does not cover all aspects of the CCM. Furthermore, this report is not intended to be shared publicly or reported to the CSA STAR registry3.
Reference:
STAR Continuous | CSA
STAR Certification | CSA
SOC 2 vs CSA STAR: Which One Should You Choose?
NEW QUESTION # 66
The BEST way to deliver continuous compliance in a cloud environment is to:
- A. increase the frequency of external audits from annual to quarterly.
- B. decrease the interval between attestations of compliance
- C. combine point-in-time assurance approaches with continuous monitoring.
- D. combine point-in-time assurance approaches with continuous auditing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Continuous auditing is a method of auditing that provides assurance on the current state of controls and compliance in a cloud environment, rather than relying on periodic snapshots or attestations. Continuous auditing can leverage continuous monitoring data and automated tools to collect and analyze evidence of compliance, as well as alert auditors and stakeholders of any deviations or issues. Continuous auditing can complement point-in-time assurance approaches, such as certifications or audits, by providing more timely and frequent feedback on the effectiveness of controls and compliance in a cloud environment. References := ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 821 ISACA, Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam, 2021, p. 30
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following cloud environments should be a concern to an organization s cloud auditor?
- A. The organization entirely depends on several proprietary Software as a Service (SaaS) applications.
- B. The cloud service provider s data center is more than 100 miles away.
- C. The failover region of the cloud service provider is on another continent
- D. The technical team is trained on only one vendor Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) platform, but the organization has subscribed to another vendor's laaS platform as an alternative.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This situation poses a significant concern for a cloud auditor because it indicates a potential gap in the technical team's ability to effectively manage and secure the IaaS platform provided by the alternative vendor.
Without proper training on the specific features, security practices, and operational procedures of the new platform, the organization may face increased risks of misconfiguration, security vulnerabilities, and inefficiencies in cloud operations. It is crucial for the technical team to have a comprehensive understanding of all platforms in use to ensure they can maintain the security and performance standards required for a robust cloud environment.
References = The concern is based on common cloud auditing challenges, such as controlling and monitoring user access, and ensuring the IT team is equipped to manage the cloud environment effectively12. Additionally, best practices suggest that network segmentation, user authentication, and access control are critical areas to address in a cloud audit3. These principles are widely recognized in the field of cloud security and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which audit report provides an attestation of audit results that cloud service providers will make available for public consumption?
- A. SOC2 Type2
- B. SOC 3
- C. SOC1
- D. SOC1 Type1
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 69
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