N10-008 Dumps (2023) Prepare Your Exam With 513 Questions
New N10-008 Dumps - Real CompTIA Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 200
A network administrator is troubleshooting the communication between two Layer 2 switches that are reporting a very high runt count. After trying multiple ports on both switches, the issue persists. Which of the following should the network administrator perform to resolve the issue?
- A. Enable debug logging on both switches.
- B. Perform a factory reset on both switches.
- C. Increase the MTU size on both switches.
- D. Recertify the cable between both switches.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 201
AGRE tunnel has been configured between two remote sites. Which of the following features, when configured, ensures me GRE overhead does not affect payload?
- A. jumbo frames
- B. Interface crossover
- C. Collision detection
- D. Auto medium-dependent Interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
One of the features that can be configured to ensure that GRE overhead does not affect payload is A. jumbo frames. Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames that have a payload size larger than 1500 bytes, which is the standard maximum transmission unit (MTU) for Ethernet. By using jumbo frames, more data can be sent in each packet, reducing the overhead ratio and improving efficiency.
Auto medium-dependent interface (MDI), interface crossover, and collision detection are features related to Ethernet physical layer connectivity, but they do not affect GRE overhead or payload.
NEW QUESTION # 202
A network technician is investigating a trouble ticket for a user who does not have network connectivity. All patch cables between the wall jacks and computers in the building were upgraded over the weekend from Cat 5 to Cat 6. The newly installed cable is crimped with a TIA/EIA 568A on one end and a TIA/EIA 568B on the other end.
Which of the following should the technician do to MOST likely fix the issue?
- A. Crimp the cable as a rollover cable.
- B. Crimp the cable as a straight-through cable.
- C. Ensure the switchport has PoE enabled.
- D. Ensure the switchport has STP enabled.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A straight-through cable is a type of twisted pair cable that has the same wiring standard (TIA/EIA 568A or 568B) on both ends. This is the most common type of cable used for connecting devices of different types, such as a computer and a switch. A cable that has different wiring standards on each end (TIA/EIA 568A on one end and 568B on the other) is called a crossover cable, which is used for connecting devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches. Therefore, the technician should crimp the cable as a straight-through cable to fix the issue.
NEW QUESTION # 203
A WAN technician reviews activity and identifies newly installed hardware that is causing outages over an eight-hour period. Which of the following should be considered FIRST?
- A. Network performance baselines
- B. VLAN assignments
- C. Routing table
- D. Device configuration review
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 204
A network administrator is configuring logging on an edge switch. The requirements are to log each time a switch port goes up or down. Which of the following logging levels will provide this information?
- A. Notifications
- B. Warnings
- C. Alert
- D. Errors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Notifications are the lowest logging level and will provide the desired information regarding switch port up/down activity. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, notifications "are used for logging normal activities, such as port up/down events, link changes, and link flaps."
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following factors should be considered when evaluating a firewall to protect a datacenter's east-west traffic?
- A. Replication traffic between an on-premises server and a remote backup facility
- B. Traffic between VMs running on different hosts
- C. Concurrent connections generated by Internet DDoS attacks
- D. VPN traffic from remote offices to the datacenter's VMs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following describes the ability of a corporate IT department to expand its cloud-hosted VM environment with minimal effort?
- A. Geo-redundancy
- B. Scalability
- C. Load balancing
- D. Multitenancy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Scalability is the ability of a corporate IT department to expand its cloud-hosted virtual machine (VM) environment with minimal effort. This allows IT departments to quickly and easily scale up their cloud environment to meet increased demand. Scalability also allows for the efficient use of resources, as IT departments can quickly and easily scale up or down as needed.
NEW QUESTION # 207
A company just migrated its email service to a cloud solution. After the migration, two-thirds of the internal users were able to connect to their mailboxes, but the connection fails for the other one-third of internal users. Users working externally are not reporting any issues. The network administrator identifies the following output collected from an internal host:
c:\user> nslookup newmail.company.com
Non-Authoritative answer:
Name: newmail.company.com
IPs: 3.219.13.186, 64.58.225.184, 184.168.131.243
Which of the following verification tasks should the network administrator perform NEXT?
- A. Validate the cloud console to determine whether there are unlicensed requests.
- B. Check the firewall ACL to verify all required IP addresses are included.
- C. Confirm the internal DNS server is replying to requests for the cloud solution.
- D. Verify the required router PAT rules are properly configured.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 208
An administrator is investigating reports of network slowness in a building. While looking at the uplink interface statistics In the switch's CLI, the administrator discovers the uplink Is at 100% utilization However, the administrator is unsure how to Identify what traffic is causing the saturation. Which of the following tools should the administrator utilize to identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic?
- A. NetFlow
- B. Traps
- C. SNMP
- D. Syslog
Answer: A
Explanation:
To identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic causing network saturation, the network administrator should use a network protocol analyzer that supports the NetFlow protocol. NetFlow is a network protocol that collects IP traffic information as it enters or exits an interface and sends it to a NetFlow collector for analysis. This data includes the source and destination addresses of the traffic, the ports used, and the number of bytes and packets transferred.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D, NetFlow.
NEW QUESTION # 209
A network administrator is trying to add network redundancy for the server farm. Which of the following can the network administrator configure to BEST provide this capability?
- A. DNS
- B. UPS
- C. RPO
- D. VRRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
VRRP is an open standard protocol, which is used to provide redundancy in a network. It is a network layer protocol (protocol number-112). The number of routers (group members) in a group acts as a virtual logical router which will be the default gateway of all the local hosts. If one router goes down, one of the other group members can take place for the responsibilities for forwarding the traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 210
ARP spoofing would normally be a part of:
- A. a rogue access point.
- B. an on-path attack.
- C. a DoS attack.
- D. DNS poisoning.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 211
After the A record of a public website was updated, some visitors were unable to access the website. Which of the following should be adjusted to address the issue?
- A. SOA
- B. TTL
- C. TXT
- D. MX
Answer: B
Explanation:
TTL (Time To Live) should be adjusted to address the issue of some visitors being unable to access the website after the A record was updated. TTL is a value that specifies how long a DNS record should be cached by DNS servers and clients before it expires and needs to be refreshed. If the TTL is too high, some DNS servers and clients may still use the old A record that points to the previous IP address of the website, resulting in connection failures. By lowering the TTL, the DNS servers and clients will update their cache more frequently and use the new A record that points to the current IP address of the website. Reference: https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-records/dns-ttl/
NEW QUESTION # 212
A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the following should the management team consult to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?
- A. Memorandum of understanding
- B. Disaster recovery plan
- C. Service-level agreement
- D. Business continuity plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon availability of the cloud service provider, the expected uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.
NEW QUESTION # 213
A network administrator is creating a subnet for a remote office that has 53 network devices. An additional requirement is to use the most efficient subnet. Which of the following CIDR notations indicates the appropriate number of IP addresses with the LEAST amount of unused addresses? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)
- A. /32
- B. /24
- C. /28
- D. /26
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This CIDR notation indicates that there are 64 IP addresses, of which 62 are usable for network devices. This provides the LEAST amount of unused addresses, making it the most efficient subnet for a remote office with
53 network devices. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "Subnetting allows you to divide one large network into smaller, more manageable networks or subnets."
NEW QUESTION # 214
A company is deploying a SAN at headquarters and a branch office 1, 000ml (1,609km) away that ws access small amounts of dat a. Which of the following types of connections would be MOST cost effective to implement?
- A. FCoE
- B. Ethernet
- C. FC
- D. ISCSI
Answer: D
Explanation:
Mike Meyers
"Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is built on top of TCP/IP, enabling devices that use the SCSI protocol to communicate across existing networks using cheap, readily available hardware." Jason Dion
"iSCSI (IP Small Computer System Interface)
- Lower cost, built using Ethernet switches (<10 Gbps)
- Relies on configuration allowing jumbo frames over the network"
NEW QUESTION # 215
A user reports that a new VoIP phone works properly but the computer that is connected to the phone cannot access any network resources. Which of the following MOST Likely needs to be configured correctly to provide network connectivity to the computer?
- A. VLAN tags
- B. ARP settings
- C. MDIX settings
- D. Port aggregation
- E. Port duplex settings
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
VLAN (virtual LAN) tags are used to identify packets as belonging to a particular VLAN. VLANs are used to segment a network into logical sub-networks, and each VLAN is assigned a unique VLAN tag. If the VLAN tag is not configured correctly, the computer may not be able to access network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 216
A network administrator is investigating a network event that is causing all communication to stop. The network administrator is unable to use SSH to connect to the switch but is able to gain access using the serial console port. While monitoring port statistics, the administrator sees the following:
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the network outage?
- A. Asynchronous route
- B. High collisions
- C. Switch loop
- D. Duplicate IP address
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 217
A PC and a network server have no network connectivity, and a help desk technician is attempting to resolve the issue. The technician plans to run a constant ping command from a Windows workstation while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. Which of the following should the technician use?
- A. ping -i
- B. ping -s
- C. ping -t
- D. ping -w
Answer: C
Explanation:
ping -t is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to send continuous ping requests to a target until stopped by pressing Ctrl-C. This can help the technician run a constant ping command while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. ping -w is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to specify a timeout value in milliseconds for each ping request. ping -i is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the time interval in seconds between each ping request. ping -s is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the size of the data payload in bytes for each ping request.
NEW QUESTION # 218
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