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The common mistakes made on the SSCP exam by candidates would be:
Not knowing how to respond to certain questions and guessing their responses. Guessing and guessing until it's too late, and guessing all the way up to the point where they know they are incorrect. Dressing inappropriately for the experience. The common mistakes here can be made by bringing inappropriate materials like cheat sheets and books during the exam. However, it's safe to take a copy of the syllabus and other documents that you can look at anytime you want during your exam. You can keep these in a folder and bring it with you using an organizer to avoid any trouble. Not knowing what to expect. Having anxiety and fear that they wouldn't pass because of their background especially if they've only been in IT for less than two years. Not preparing themselves physically and emotionally. By leaving the test center early before others, thus giving them less time to review their answers. Skipping questions. Not having the right training.
On the other hand, people who pass the exam by preparing themselves with SSCP Dumps would be able to answer questions confidently. Rather than having doubts about their answers; they could feel that they are right about their responses because of what they learned during training. They know what to expect and understand how difficult it is to pass these exams because of all the things they learned from their teachers who are ISC certified security professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 606
Which of the following is NOT and encryption algorithm?
- A. DES
- B. SHA-1
- C. SSL
- D. MD5
- E. 3DES
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 607
Which of the following protocols does not operate at the data link layer (layer 2)?
- A. RARP
- B. ICMP
- C. L2F
- D. PPP
Answer: B
Explanation:
ICMP is the only of the mentioned protocols to operate at the network layer
(layer 3). Other protocols operate at layer 2.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CBK#2 Telecommunications and Network Security (CISSP
Study Guide), April 2002 (page 1).
NEW QUESTION # 608
Which of the following choices describe a condition when RAM and Secondary storage are used together?
- A. Virtual storage
- B. Secondary storage
- C. Primary storage
- D. Real storage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Virtual storage a service provided by the operating system where it uses a combination of RAM and disk storage to simulate a much larger address space than is actually present. Infrequently used portions of memory are paged out by being written to secondary storage and paged back in when required by a running program.
Most OS's have the ability to simulate having more main memory than is physically available in the system.
This is done by storing part of the data on secondary storage, such as a disk. This can be considered a virtual page. If the data requested by the system is not currently in main memory, a page fault is taken.
This condition triggers the OS handler. If the virtual address is a valid one, the OS will locate the physical page, put the right information in that page, update the translation table, and then try the request again.
Some other page might be swapped out to make room. Each process may have its own separate virtual address space along with its own mappings and protections.
The following are incorrect answers:
Primary storage is incorrect. Primary storage refers to the combination of RAM, cache and the processor registers. Primary Storage The data waits for processing by the processors, it sits in a staging area called primary storage. Whether implemented as memory, cache, or registers (part of the CPU), and regardless of its location, primary storage stores data that has a high probability of being requested by the CPU, so it is usually faster than long-term, secondary storage. The location where data is stored is denoted by its physical memory address. This memory register identifier remains constant and is independent of the value stored there. Some examples of primary storage devices include random-access memory (RAM), synchronous dynamic random-access memory (SDRAM), and read-only memory (ROM). RAM is volatile, that is, when the system shuts down, it flushes the data in RAM although recent research has shown that data may still be retrievable. Contrast this
Secondary storage is incorrect. Secondary storage holds data not currently being used by the CPU and is used when data must be stored for an extended period of time using high-capacity, nonvolatile storage.
Secondary storage includes disk, floppies, CD's, tape, etc. While secondary storage includes basically anything different from primary storage, virtual memory's use of secondary storage is usually confined to high-speed disk storage.
Real storage is incorrect. Real storage is another word for primary storage and distinguishes physical memory from virtual memory.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 17164-17171). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 17196-17201). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 17186-17187). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 609
Within the OSI model, at what layer are some of the SLIP, CSLIP, PPP control functions provided?
- A. Transport
- B. Data Link
- C. Presentation
- D. Application
Answer: B
Explanation:
RFC 1661 - The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) specifies that the Point-to-
Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams
over point-to-point links. PPP is comprised of three main components:
1 A method for encapsulating multi-protocol datagrams.
2 A Link Control Protocol (LCP) for establishing, configuring, and testing the data-link
connection.
3 A family of Network Control Protocols (NCPs) for establishing and configuring different
network-layer protocols.
NEW QUESTION # 610
FTP, TFTP, SNMP, and SMTP are provided at what level of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) Reference Model?
- A. Transport
- B. Presentation
- C. Application
- D. Network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The Answer: Application. The Layer 7 Application Layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) Reference Model is a service for applications and Operating Systems data transmission, for example FTP, TFTP, SNMP, and SMTP.
The following answers are incorrect:
Network. The Network layer moves information between hosts that are not physically connected. It deals with routing of information. IP is a protocol that is used in Network Layer. FTP, TFTP, SNMP, and SMTP do not reside at the Layer 3 Network Layer in the OSI Reference Model.
Presentation. The Presentation Layer is concerned with the formatting of data into a standard presentation such as ASCII. FTP, TFTP, SNMP, and SMTP do not reside at the Layer 6 Presentation Layer in the OSI Reference Model.
Transport. The Transport Layer creates an end-to-end transportation between peer hosts. The transmission can be connectionless and unreliable such as UDP, or connection-oriented and ensure error-free delivery such as TCP. FTP, TFTP, SNMP, and SMTP do not reside at the Layer 4 Transportation Layer in the OSI Reference Model.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Reference: OSI/ISO.
Shon Harris AIO v.3 p. 420-421
ISC2 OIG, 2997 p.412-413
NEW QUESTION # 611
A prolonged power supply that is below normal voltage is a:
- A. surge
- B. blackout
- C. fault
- D. brownout
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A prolonged power supply that is below normal voltage is a brownout.
From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 3rd. Edition McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2005, page 368.
NEW QUESTION # 612
Of the reasons why a Disaster Recovery plan gets outdated, which of the following is not true?
- A. Continous auditing makes a Disaster Recovery plan irrelevant
- B. Large plans can take a lot of work to maintain
- C. Personnel turnover
- D. Infrastructure and environment changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Although a auditing is a part of corporate security, it in no way supercedes the requirments for a disaster recovery plan. All others can be blamed for a plan going out of date.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9:
Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 609).
NEW QUESTION # 613
Which of the following would be MOST important to guarantee that the computer evidence will be admissible in court?
- A. Its reliability must be proven.
- B. It must prove a fact that is immaterial to the case.
- C. The process for producing it must be documented and repeatable.
- D. The chain of custody of the evidence must show who collected, secured, controlled, handled, transported the evidence, and that it was not tampered with.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
It has to be material, relevant and reliable, and the chain of custody must be maintained, it is unlikely that it will be admissible in court if it has been tampered with.
The following answers are incorrect:
It must prove a fact that is immaterial to the case. Is incorrect because evidence must be relevant. If it is immaterial then it is not relevant.
Its reliability must be proven. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. While evidence must be relevant if the chain of custody cannot be verified, then the evidence could lose it's credibility because there is no proof that the evidence was not tampered with. So, the correct answer above is the BEST answer.
The process for producing it must be documented and repeatable. Is incorrect because just because the process is documented and repeatable does not mean that it will be the same. This amounts to Corroborative Evidence that may help to support a case.
NEW QUESTION # 614
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses a Message Authentication Code (MAC) for what purpose?
- A. message interleave checking.
- B. message non-repudiation.
- C. message confidentiality.
- D. message integrity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A keyed hash also called a MAC (message authentication code) is used for integrity protection and authenticity.
In cryptography, a message authentication code (MAC) is a generated value used to authenticate a message. A MAC can be generated by HMAC or CBC-MAC methods. The MAC protects both a message's integrity (by ensuring that a different MAC will be produced if the message has changed) as well as its authenticity, because only someone who knows the secret key could have modified the message.
MACs differ from digital signatures as MAC values are both generated and verified using the same secret key. This implies that the sender and receiver of a message must agree on the same key before initiating communications, as is the case with symmetric encryption. For the same reason, MACs do not provide the property of non-repudiation offered by signatures specifically in the case of a network-wide shared secret key: any user who can verify a MAC is also capable of generating MACs for other messages.
HMAC
When using HMAC the symmetric key of the sender would be concatenated (added at the end) with the message. The result of this process (message + secret key) would be put through a hashing algorithm, and the result would be a MAC value. This MAC value is then appended to the message being sent. If an enemy were to intercept this message and modify it, he would not have the necessary symmetric key to create a valid MAC value. The receiver would detect the tampering because the MAC value would not be valid on the receiving side.
CBC-MAC
If a CBC-MAC is being used, the message is encrypted with a symmetric block cipher in CBC mode, and the output of the final block of ciphertext is used as the MAC. The sender does not send the encrypted version of the message, but instead sends the plaintext version and the MAC attached to the message. The receiver receives the plaintext message and encrypts it with the same symmetric block cipher in CBC mode and calculates an independent MAC value. The receiver compares the new MAC value with the MAC value sent with the message. This method does not use a hashing algorithm as does HMAC.
Cipher-Based Message Authentication Code (CMAC)
Some security issues with CBC-MAC were found and they created Cipher-Based Message Authentication Code (CMAC) as a replacement. CMAC provides the same type of data origin authentication and integrity as CBC-MAC, but is more secure mathematically. CMAC is a variation of CBC-MAC. It is approved to work with AES and Triple DES. HMAC, CBC-MAC, and CMAC work higher in the network stack and can identify not only transmission errors (accidental), but also more nefarious modifications, as in an attacker messing with a message for her own benefit. This means all of these technologies can identify intentional, unauthorized modifications and accidental changes-- three in one.
The following are all incorrect answers:
"Message non-repudiation" is incorrect.
Nonrepudiation is the assurance that someone cannot deny something. Typically, nonrepudiation refers to the ability to ensure that a party to a contract or a communication cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated.
To repudiate means to deny. For many years, authorities have sought to make repudiation impossible in some situations. You might send registered mail, for example, so the recipient cannot deny that a letter was delivered. Similarly, a legal document typically requires witnesses to signing so that the person who signs cannot deny having done so.
On the Internet, a digital signature is used not only to ensure that a message or document has been electronically signed by the person that purported to sign the document, but also, since a digital signature can only be created by one person, to ensure that a person cannot later deny that they furnished the signature.
"Message confidentiality" is incorrect. The Message confidentiality is protected by encryption not by hashing algorithms.
"Message interleave checking" is incorrect. This is a nonsense term included as a distractor.
NEW QUESTION # 615
Which of the following is not an example of a block cipher?
- A. Blowfish
- B. IDEA
- C. Skipjack
- D. RC4
Answer: D
Explanation:
RC4 is a proprietary, variable-key-length stream cipher invented by Ron
Rivest for RSA Data Security, Inc. Skipjack, IDEA and Blowfish are examples of block
ciphers.
Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.
NEW QUESTION # 616
Which of the following reviews system and event logs to detect attacks on the host and determine if the attack was successful?
- A. bastion-based IDS
- B. server-based IDS
- C. host-based IDS
- D. firewall-based IDS
Answer: C
Explanation:
A host-based IDS can review the system and event logs in order to detect an
attack on the host and to determine if the attack was successful.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 48.
NEW QUESTION # 617
Most access violations are:
- A. Accidental
- B. Related to Internet
- C. Caused by external hackers
- D. Caused by internal hackers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
The most likely source of exposure is from the uninformed, accidental or unknowing person, although the greatest impact may be from those with malicious or fraudulent intent.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, Chapter 4: Protection of Information Assets (page 192).
NEW QUESTION # 618
Which Network Address Translation (NAT) is the most convenient and secure solution?
- A. Port Address Translation
- B. Hiding Network Address Translation
- C. Dedicated Address Translation
- D. Static Address Translation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Static network address translation offers the most flexibility, but it is not normally practical given the shortage of IP version 4 addresses. Hiding network address translation is was an interim step in the development of network address translation technology, and is seldom used because port address translation offers additional features above and beyond those present in hiding network address translation while maintaining the same basic design and engineering considerations. PAT is often the most convenient and secure solution.
Source: WACK, John et al., NIST Special publication 800-41, Guidelines on Firewalls and Firewall Policy, January 2002 (page 18).
NEW QUESTION # 619
Within the legal domain what rule is concerned with the legality of how the evidence was gathered ?
- A. Best evidence rule
- B. Exclusionary rule
- C. Investigation rule
- D. Hearsay rule
Answer: B
Explanation:
The exclusionary rule mentions that evidence must be gathered legally or it can't be used.
The principle based on federal Constitutional Law that evidence illegally seized by law enforcement officers in violation of a suspect's right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures cannot be used against the suspect in a criminal prosecution. The exclusionary rule is designed to exclude evidence obtained in violation of a criminal defendant's Fourth Amendment rights. The Fourth Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures by law enforcement personnel. If the search of a criminal suspect is unreasonable, the evidence obtained in the search will be excluded from trial.
The exclusionary rule is a court-made rule. This means that it was created not in statutes passed by legislative bodies but rather by the U.S. Supreme Court. The exclusionary rule applies in federal courts by virtue of the Fourth Amendment. The Court has ruled that it applies in state courts although the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.(The Bill of Rights--the first ten amendments-- applies to actions by the federal government. The Fourteenth Amendment, the Court has held, makes most of the protections in the Bill of Rights applicable to actions by the states.) The exclusionary rule has been in existence since the early 1900s. Before the rule was fashioned, any evidence was admissible in a criminal trial if the judge found the evidence to be relevant. The manner in which the evidence had been seized was not an issue. This began to change in 1914, when the U.S. Supreme Court devised a way to enforce the Fourth Amendment.
In Weeks v. United States, 232 U.S. 383, 34 S. Ct. 341, 58 L. Ed. 652 (1914), a federal agent had conducted a warrantless search for evidence of gambling at the home of Fremont Weeks. The evidence seized in the search was used at trial, and Weeks was convicted. On appeal, the Court held that the Fourth Amendment barred the use of evidence secured through a warrantless search. Weeks's conviction was reversed, and thus was born the exclusionary rule.
The best evidence rule concerns limiting potential for alteration. The best evidence rule is a common law rule of evidence which can be traced back at least as far as the 18th century. In Omychund v Barker (1745) 1 Atk, 21, 49; 26 ER 15, 33, Lord Harwicke stated that no evidence was admissible unless it was "the best that the nature of the case will allow". The general rule is that secondary evidence, such as a copy or facsimile, will be not admissible if an original document exists, and is not unavailable due to destruction or other circumstances indicating unavailability.
The rationale for the best evidence rule can be understood from the context in which it arose: in the eighteenth century a copy was usually made by hand by a clerk (or even a litigant). The best evidence rule was predicated on the assumption that, if the original was not produced, there was a significant chance of error or fraud in relying on such a copy. The hearsay rule concerns computer-generated evidence, which is considered second-hand evidence.
Hearsay is information gathered by one person from another concerning some event, condition, or thing of which the first person had no direct experience. When submitted as evidence, such statements are called hearsay evidence. As a legal term, "hearsay" can also have the narrower meaning of the use of such information as evidence to prove the truth of what is asserted. Such use of "hearsay evidence" in court is generally not allowed. This prohibition is called the hearsay rule.
For example, a witness says "Susan told me Tom was in town". Since the witness did not see Tom in town, the statement would be hearsay evidence to the fact that Tom was in town, and not admissible. However, it would be admissible as evidence that Susan said Tom was in town, and on the issue of her knowledge of whether he was in town.
Hearsay evidence has many exception rules. For the purpose of the exam you must be familiar with the business records exception rule to the Hearsay Evidence. The business records created during the ordinary course of business are considered reliable and can usually be brought in under this exception if the proper foundation is laid when the records are introduced into evidence. Depending on which jurisdiction the case is in, either the records custodian or someone with knowledge of the records must lay a foundation for the records. Logs that are collected as part of a document business process being carried at regular interval would fall under this exception. They could be presented in court and not be considered Hearsay.
Investigation rule is a detractor.
NEW QUESTION # 620
Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
- A. Differential backup method
- B. Full backup method
- C. Off-site backup method
- D. Incremental backup method
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every time it is run. Since a single backup set is needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate for off-site archiving.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
69).
NEW QUESTION # 621
Which authentication technique best protects against hijacking?
- A. Strong authentication
- B. Continuous authentication
- C. Static authentication
- D. Robust authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
A continuous authentication provides protection against impostors who can see, alter, and insert information passed between the claimant and verifier even after the claimant/verifier authentication is complete. This is the best protection against hijacking. Static authentication is the type of authentication provided by traditional password schemes and the strength of the authentication is highly dependent on the difficulty of guessing passwords. The robust authentication mechanism relies on dynamic authentication data that changes with each authenticated session between a claimant and a verifier, and it does not protect against hijacking. Strong authentication refers to a two-factor authentication (like something a user knows and something a user is).
Source: TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1), 2000, CRC Press, Chapter 3: Secured Connections to External Networks (page 51).
NEW QUESTION # 622
In which of the following model are Subjects and Objects identified and the permissions applied to each subject/object combination are specified. Such a model can be used to quickly summarize what permissions a subject has for various system objects.
- A. Biba model
- B. Access Control Matrix model
- C. Take-Grant model
- D. Bell-LaPadula model
Answer: B
Explanation:
An access control matrix is a table of subjects and objects indicating what
actions individual subjects can take upon individual objects. Matrices are data structures
that programmers implement as table lookups that will be used and enforced by the
operating system.
This type of access control is usually an attribute of DAC models. The access rights can be
assigned directly to the subjects (capabilities) or to the objects (ACLs).
Capability Table
A capability table specifies the access rights a certain subject possesses pertaining to
specific objects. A capability table is different from an ACL because the subject is bound to
the capability table, whereas the object is bound to the ACL.
Access control lists (ACLs)
ACLs are used in several operating systems, applications, and router configurations. They
are lists of subjects that are authorized to access a specific object, and they define what
level of authorization is granted. Authorization can be specific to an individual, group, or
role. ACLs map values from the access control matrix to the object.
Whereas a capability corresponds to a row in the access control matrix, the ACL
corresponds to a column of the matrix.
NOTE: Ensure you are familiar with the terms Capability and ACLs for the purpose of the
exam.
Resource(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 5264-5267). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition. or Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Page 229 and Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1923-1925). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 623
Secure Shell (SSH) is a strong method of performing:
- A. client authentication
- B. host authentication
- C. server authentication
- D. guest authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Secure shell (SSH) was designed as an alternative to some of the insecure protocols and allows users to securely access resources on remote computers over an encrypted tunnel. The Secure Shell Protocol (SSH) is a protocol for secure remote login and other secure network services over an insecure network. The SSH authentication protocol runs on top of the SSH transport layer protocol and provides a single authenticated tunnel for the SSH connection protocol.
SSH's services include remote log-on, file transfer, and command execution. It also supports port forwarding, which redirects other protocols through an encrypted SSH tunnel. Many users protect less secure traffic of protocols, such as X Windows and VNC (virtual network computing), by forwarding them through a SSH tunnel.
The SSH tunnel protects the integrity of communication, preventing session hijacking and other man-in-the- middle attacks. Another advantage of SSH over its predecessors is that it supports strong authentication.
There are several alternatives for SSH clients to authenticate to a SSH server, including passwords and digital certificates.
Keep in mind that authenticating with a password is still a significant improvement over the other protocols because the password is transmitted encrypted.
There are two incompatible versions of the protocol, SSH-1 and SSH-2, though many servers support both.
SSH-2 has improved integrity checks (SSH-1 is vulnerable to an insertion attack due to weak CRC-32 integrity checking) and supports local extensions and additional types of digital certificates such as Open PGP. SSH was originally designed for UNIX, but there are now implementations for other operating systems, including Windows, Macintosh, and OpenVMS.
Is SSH 3.0 the same as SSH3?
The short answer is: NO SSH 3.0 refers to version 3 of SSH Communications SSH2 protocol implementation and it could also refer to OpenSSH Version 3.0 of its SSH2 software. The "3" refers to the software release version not the protocol version. As of this writing (July 2013), there is no SSH3 protocol.
"Server authentication" is incorrect. Though many SSH clients allow pre-caching of server/host keys, this is a minimal form of server/host authentication.
"Host authentication" is incorrect. Though many SSH clients allow pre-caching of server/host keys, this is a minimal form of server/host authentication.
"Guest authentication" is incorrect. The general idea of "guest" is that it is unauthenticated access.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4252.txt
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 7080-7088). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 624
What is the role of IKE within the IPsec protocol?
- A. peer authentication and key exchange
- B. data encryption
- C. enforcing quality of service
- D. data signature
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 625
Which of the following statements pertaining to biometrics is FALSE?
- A. User can be authenticated based on unique physical attributes.
- B. User can be authenticated based on behavior.
- C. User can be authenticated by what he knows.
- D. A biometric system's accuracy is determined by its crossover error rate (CER).
Answer: C
Explanation:
As this is not a characteristic of Biometrics this is the rigth choice for this question. This is one of the three basic way authentication can be performed and it is not related to Biometrics. Example of something you know would be a password or PIN for example.
Please make a note of the negative 'FALSE' within the question. This question may seem tricky to some of you but you would be amazed at how many people cannot deal with negative questions.
There will be a few negative questions within the real exam, just like this one the keyword NOT or FALSE will be in Uppercase to clearly indicate that it is negative.
Biometrics verifies an individual's identity by analyzing a unique personal attribute or behavior, which is one of the most effective and accurate methods of performing authentication (one to one matching) or identification (a one to many matching).
A biometric system scans an attribute or behavior of a person and compares it to a template store within an authentication server datbase, such template would be created in an earlier enrollment process. Because this system inspects the grooves of a person's fingerprint, the pattern of someone's retina, or the pitches of someone's voice, it has to be extremely sensitive.
The system must perform accurate and repeatable measurements of anatomical or physiological characteristics. This type of sensitivity can easily cause false positives or false negatives. The system must be calibrated so that these false positives and false negatives occur infrequently and the results are as accurate as possible.
There are two types of failures in biometric identification:
False Rejection also called False Rejection Rate (FRR) -- The system fail to recognize a legitimate user. While it could be argued that this has the effect of keeping the protected area extra secure, it is an intolerable frustration to legitimate users who are refused access because the scanner does not recognize them.
False Acceptance or False Acceptance Rate (FAR) -- This is an erroneous recognition, either by confusing one user with another or by accepting an imposter as a legitimate user.
Physiological Examples:
Unique Physical Attributes:
Fingerprint (Most commonly accepted)
Hand Geometry
Retina Scan (Most accurate but most intrusive)
Iris Scan
Vascular Scan
Behavioral Examples:
Repeated Actions
Keystroke Dynamics
(Dwell time (the time a key is pressed) and Flight time (the time between "key up" and the next
"key down").
Signature Dynamics
(Stroke and pressure points)
EXAM TIP:
Retina scan devices are the most accurate but also the most invasive biometrics system available today. The continuity of the retinal pattern throughout life and the difficulty in fooling such a device also make it a great long-term, high-security option. Unfortunately, the cost of the proprietary hardware as well the stigma of users thinking it is potentially harmful to the eye makes retinal scanning a bad fit for most situations.
Remember for the exam that fingerprints are the most commonly accepted type of biometrics system.
The other answers are incorrect:
'Users can be authenticated based on behavior.' is incorrect as this choice is TRUE as it pertains to BIOMETRICS.
Biometrics systems makes use of unique physical characteristics or behavior of users.
'User can be authenticated based on unique physical attributes.' is also incorrect as this choice is also TRUE as it pertains to BIOMETRICS. Biometrics systems makes use of unique physical characteristics or behavior of users.
'A biometric system's accuracy is determined by its crossover error rate (CER)' is also incorrect as this is TRUE as it also pertains to BIOMETRICS. The CER is the point at which the false rejection rates and the false acceptance rates are equal. The smaller the value of the CER, the more accurate the system.
NEW QUESTION # 626
......
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